Order ID 53563633773 Type Essay Writer Level Masters Style APA Sources/References 4 Perfect Number of Pages To Order 5-10 Pages Description/Paper Instructions
- What is the only antibiotic/antibiotic class that targets Topoisomerase in bacterial cells?
A.) Aminoglycosides
B.) Beta lactams
C.) Ethambutol
D.) Quinolones
E.) Trimethoprim
- A 11 year-old boy presents to the ED with diffuse abdominal pain with rebound tenderness and a positive McBurney’s sign. Which two medications would you place this patient on to cover both anaerobes and gram negative aerobic rods?
A.) Clindamycin and Ciprofloxacin
B.) Clindamycin and Gentamicin
C.) Metronidazole and Tobramycin
D.) Metronidazole and Aztreonam
E.) Metronidazole and Levofloxacin
F.) B, C, D
- Metronidazole and Burnamycin
- A 65 year-old female is being treated for a systemic fungal infection with a polyene antimycotic agent that binds ergosterol. Which of the following will reduce the adverse effects often experienced with this agent?
A.) administer with clavulanic acid
B.) administer with fluconazole
C.) administer the lipid formulation
D.) administer the protein formulation
E.) administer with terbenafine
F.) administer with a martini
- An 83 year-old female presents to the ED from her extended care facility with change in mental status, dysuria, and flank pain. The patient is febrile with a temperature of 102. Past medical history is significant for neurogenic bladder and renal artery stenosis. Which antibiotic would cover systemic gram negative bacilli infections without affecting renal function substantially?
A.) Aztreonam
B.) Gentamycin
C.) Metronidazole
D.) Tobramycin
E.) Terbinafine
F.) Nephrocillin
- A 24 year-old male is being treated for gonococcal urethritis. When asked about his allergies, he responds that he is allergic to penicillin. Which adverse reaction to penicillin would disallow the administration of ceftriaxone?
A.) anaphylaxis
B.) elevated liver function tests
C.) diarrhea
D.) rash
E.) tendonopathy
F.) Halatosis fugax
- A 7 year-old was bitten at daycare by a 4 year-old. What is the drug of choice for treatment?
A.) Ampicillin
B.) Cefuroxime
C.) Biteadroxil
D.) Cephalexin
E.) Gentamycin
F.) Vancomycin
- A 46 year-old homeless male with a history of alcoholism and IV drug abuse presents to the ED with a change in mental status, headache, nuchal rigidity, and fever/chills. He refuses an HIV test, but his CD4 count is 82. You suspect Cryptococcal meningitis. Which medication should be utilized?
A.) Echinocandins
B.) Fluconazole
C.) Itraconazole
D.) Ketoconazole
E.) Cryptoconazole
F.) Voriconazole
- A 82 year-old female with a history of GERD and dysphagia is seen by her PCP with SOB and consolidated crackles in the left lower lobe. Chest X-ray reveals a LLL pneumonia. Which medications are necessary for the treatment of chemical pneumonitis?
A.) Clindamycin
B.) Doxycycline
C.) Steroids and Clindamycin
D.) Steroids and Doxycycline
E.) Vancomycin
- A 55 year-old female who recently underwent a total knee replacement (on Coumadin) develops cystitis and is placed on Bactrim. The patient returns to your office for follow-up concerned about her bleeding gums, nose bleeds, and large bruises surrounding her joints bilaterally. Which medication can you switch this patient to reduce her drug interaction?
A.) Erythromycin
B.) Ciprofloxacin
C.) Cefadroxil
D.) Bruisacillin
E.) Levofloxacin
F.) Metronidazole
- A 25 year-old female allowed her partner to inject heroin into her calf muscle and has now developed cellulitis. The patient also complains of fever/chills, headache, and heart palpitations. What antibiotic will effectively treat her bacteremia and cellulitis?
A.) Amoxicillin
B.) Clindamycin
C.) Doxycycline
D.) Rifampin
E.) Vancomycin
- A 6 year-old boy and his parents present to your office with a 4-day history of oily, foul smelling diarrhea, after coming back from a camping trip. The parents and child need to be treated before they can take their son back to daycare. Which medication is most appropriate?
A.) Clindamycin
B.) Itraconazole
C.) Ivermectin
D.) Loperamide
E.) Metronidazole
F.) Foulsmellacin
- What is the recommended daily prophylactic dose for HSV-2 infections in adults?
A.) Acyclovir 200 mg po daily
B.) Acyclovir 400 mg po BID
C.) Acyclovir 600 mg po daily
D.) Valacyclovir 400 mg po BID
E.) Valacyclovir 600 mg po BID
- A 35 year-old firefighter who sustained third-degree burns from an industrial fire 2 week ago has grown Pseudomonas from his bronchial washings and burn cultures. Which penam antibiotic has the best
pseudomonas coverage?
A.) Doripenam
B.) Ertapenam
C.) Imipenam
D.) Merapenam
E.) Obamapenam
- A 76 year-old female who recently returned from a trip to Australia presents to your office with a large, gaping wound in her foot that she got from stepping on a piece of coral on the beach. She did not want to seek medical attention in another country and did not know how to properly clean and dress the wound. Her right great toe has a large, deep pyogenic ulceration with foul-smelling grey discharge. The patient refuses to be admitted to the hospital. What broad spectrum antibiotic can be given orally in an outpatient setting?
A.) Augmentin
B.) Timentin
C.) Unasyn
D.) Zosyn
E.) Zyvox
- A 58 year-old male patient is being treated for a severe MRSA cellulitis and associated abscess with Linezolid. What is a serious side effect associated with this medication?
A.) Anaphylaxis
B.) GI disturbance
C.) Hepatic encephalopathy
D.) Hypercoagulability
E.) Thrombocytopenia
F.) Turning purple into green poka-dots
- A 28 year-old G2P1001 at 35 weeks’ gestation presents with dysuria, polyuria, fever, chills, and a temperature of 101. What antibiotic class is absolutely contraindicated during pregnancy and why?
A.) Cephalosporins- CNS malformations
B.) Penicillins- infantile cataracts
C.) Macrolides- hydrops fetalis
D.) Quinolones- tendon dysgenesis
E.) Sulfonamides- bone deformities
- A 62 year-old female presents with recurrent UTIs. The patient is allergic to penicillins with an anaphylactic reaction. What medication would be most appropriate for this patient?
A.) Cefepime
B.) Ciprofloxacin
C.) Levofloxacin
D.) Moxifloxacin
E.) Rifaximin
F.) Elderacillin
- A 35 year-old professional skier developed edema and erythema surrounding his incision post-total knee replacement on post-op day 25. There is evidence the infection spread to the hardware, which is removed and cultured. What is the appropriate treatment to cover MRSA in this situation?
A.) ceftriaxone and amoxicillin
B.) ceftriaxone and rifampin
C.) vancomycin and amoxicillin
D.) vancomycin and ceftriaxone
E.) vancomycin and rifampin
- A 5 year-old boy presents to your office with a large, red lesion that continues to spread, according to the patient’s mother. The lesion is now 6 cm in diameter with central and peripheral erythema. The patient had recently gone deer hunting with his father, who denies any signs of a rash. The patient has no other symptoms. What medication would you treat him with?
A.) Amoxicillin
B.) Ceftriaxone
C.) Doxycycline
D.) Terbinafine
E.) Tetracycline
- Match the following drugs to their known side effects:
20.) Amphotericin B A.) Turning red with infusion
21.) Aminoglycosides B.) Bleeding
22.) Azoles C.) Bone marrow toxicity
23.) Cefotetan D.) C. Diff colitis
24.) Clindamycin E.) Disulfiram-like reaction
25.) Metronidazole F.) Hepatic toxicity
26.) Vancomycin G.) Ototoxicity
RUBRIC
QUALITY OF RESPONSE NO RESPONSE POOR / UNSATISFACTORY SATISFACTORY GOOD EXCELLENT Content (worth a maximum of 50% of the total points) Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. 20 points out of 50: The essay illustrates poor understanding of the relevant material by failing to address or incorrectly addressing the relevant content; failing to identify or inaccurately explaining/defining key concepts/ideas; ignoring or incorrectly explaining key points/claims and the reasoning behind them; and/or incorrectly or inappropriately using terminology; and elements of the response are lacking. 30 points out of 50: The essay illustrates a rudimentary understanding of the relevant material by mentioning but not full explaining the relevant content; identifying some of the key concepts/ideas though failing to fully or accurately explain many of them; using terminology, though sometimes inaccurately or inappropriately; and/or incorporating some key claims/points but failing to explain the reasoning behind them or doing so inaccurately. Elements of the required response may also be lacking. 40 points out of 50: The essay illustrates solid understanding of the relevant material by correctly addressing most of the relevant content; identifying and explaining most of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology; explaining the reasoning behind most of the key points/claims; and/or where necessary or useful, substantiating some points with accurate examples. The answer is complete. 50 points: The essay illustrates exemplary understanding of the relevant material by thoroughly and correctly addressing the relevant content; identifying and explaining all of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology explaining the reasoning behind key points/claims and substantiating, as necessary/useful, points with several accurate and illuminating examples. No aspects of the required answer are missing. Use of Sources (worth a maximum of 20% of the total points). Zero points: Student failed to include citations and/or references. Or the student failed to submit a final paper. 5 out 20 points: Sources are seldom cited to support statements and/or format of citations are not recognizable as APA 6th Edition format. There are major errors in the formation of the references and citations. And/or there is a major reliance on highly questionable. The Student fails to provide an adequate synthesis of research collected for the paper. 10 out 20 points: References to scholarly sources are occasionally given; many statements seem unsubstantiated. Frequent errors in APA 6th Edition format, leaving the reader confused about the source of the information. There are significant errors of the formation in the references and citations. And/or there is a significant use of highly questionable sources. 15 out 20 points: Credible Scholarly sources are used effectively support claims and are, for the most part, clear and fairly represented. APA 6th Edition is used with only a few minor errors. There are minor errors in reference and/or citations. And/or there is some use of questionable sources. 20 points: Credible scholarly sources are used to give compelling evidence to support claims and are clearly and fairly represented. APA 6th Edition format is used accurately and consistently. The student uses above the maximum required references in the development of the assignment. Grammar (worth maximum of 20% of total points) Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. 5 points out of 20: The paper does not communicate ideas/points clearly due to inappropriate use of terminology and vague language; thoughts and sentences are disjointed or incomprehensible; organization lacking; and/or numerous grammatical, spelling/punctuation errors 10 points out 20: The paper is often unclear and difficult to follow due to some inappropriate terminology and/or vague language; ideas may be fragmented, wandering and/or repetitive; poor organization; and/or some grammatical, spelling, punctuation errors 15 points out of 20: The paper is mostly clear as a result of appropriate use of terminology and minimal vagueness; no tangents and no repetition; fairly good organization; almost perfect grammar, spelling, punctuation, and word usage. 20 points: The paper is clear, concise, and a pleasure to read as a result of appropriate and precise use of terminology; total coherence of thoughts and presentation and logical organization; and the essay is error free. Structure of the Paper (worth 10% of total points) Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. 3 points out of 10: Student needs to develop better formatting skills. The paper omits significant structural elements required for and APA 6th edition paper. Formatting of the paper has major flaws. The paper does not conform to APA 6th edition requirements whatsoever. 5 points out of 10: Appearance of final paper demonstrates the student’s limited ability to format the paper. There are significant errors in formatting and/or the total omission of major components of an APA 6th edition paper. The can include the omission of the cover page, abstract, and page numbers. Additionally the page has major formatting issues with spacing or paragraph formation. Font size might not conform to size requirements. The student also significantly writes too large or too short of and paper 7 points out of 10: Research paper presents an above-average use of formatting skills. The paper has slight errors within the paper. This can include small errors or omissions with the cover page, abstract, page number, and headers. There could be also slight formatting issues with the document spacing or the font Additionally the paper might slightly exceed or undershoot the specific number of required written pages for the assignment. 10 points: Student provides a high-caliber, formatted paper. This includes an APA 6th edition cover page, abstract, page number, headers and is double spaced in 12’ Times Roman Font. Additionally the paper conforms to the specific number of required written pages and neither goes over or under the specified length of the paper. GET THIS PROJECT NOW BY CLICKING ON THIS LINK TO PLACE THE ORDER
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