UCSB PSTAT 109 Statistics for Economics Essay
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Description/Paper Instructions
UCSB PSTAT 109 Statistics for Economics Essay
PSTAT 109: Quiz 7
Winter 2014
Instructions: Please show all formulas and calculations in an organized fashion for full credit.
Problem 1. For the following data,
21, 18, 17, 23, 22, 19, 21, 17, 25,
compute the following measures:
- mean,
- sample variance,
- the 30th percedntile,
- the median,
- the 83rd percentile,
In general, what is the advantage of reporting the median value as opposed to the mean value?
Problem 2. Suppose X1 and S 2 1 are the sample mean and sample variance from a population with
mean 1 and variance 2 1 , and X 2 and S 2 2 are the sample mean and sample variance from a second independent population with mean 2 and 2
The sample sizes are n1 and n2, respectively. Show that..
- Now suppose we have the same setup as in (a) but 2 1 = 2 2 = 2 . Show that the pooled sample variance
is an unbiased estimator of 2 . (Hint: Sample variance S 2 is an unbiased estimator of population variance 2 .)
Problem 3. Candidate A is running for student body president at some university. The proportion of students who favor this candidate at the moment is 0.8.
- Suppose a simple random sample of 100 students is taken. What are the expected value, standard deviation, and shape of the sampling distribution of p?
- If a simple random sample of 100 students is taken, what is the probability that the number of students in the sample who DO NOT favor Candidate A will be between 26 and 30?
BAM402 Public Relations
Home>Business & Finance homework help>Accounting homework help
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) Public relations .
- A) is a form of propaganda
- B) involves two-way communication
- C) is also known as “free advertising” D) All of the above.
- E) None of the above.
2) The process of researching, creating, and refining a product or service and distributing that product or service to targeted customers is called .
- A) advertising
- B) marketing
- C) public relations
- D) All of the above.
- E) None of the above.
3) A profession is distinguished from a trade by .
- A) the establishment of ethical standards
- B) a form of licensing or government control
- C) ongoing research in support of the profession
- D) A and B
- E) All of the above.
4) Organizations such as PRSA and IABC have sought to promote professionalism in public relations by .
- A) requiring minimum competency tests for new practitioners
- B) demanding an increase in practitioner minimum salaries
- C) establishing voluntary accreditation programs
- D) filing lawsuits against unethical practitioners
- E) supporting government licensing of public relations
5) The execution phase of the public relations process is known as .
- A) planning
- B) propaganda C) evaluation D) research
- E) communication
Challenge Examination
6) According to a 2005 membership survey, the largest number of PRSA members are employed by .
- A) trade/professional organizations
- B) the government or the military
- C) public relations/advertising agencies
- D) corporations
- E) nonprofit organizations
7) The values-driven management of relationships between an organization and the publics that can affect its success is known as .
- A) reputation management
- B) the dynamic approach to public relations
- C) values-added public relations D) values-driven public relations E) relationship building
8) The first question an organization should ask itself when developing a values statement is .
- A) Why are we in business? B) What is in it for us?
- C) How can we win the respect of others?
- D) Why should be care about our customers? E) How much money do we want to make?
9) San Francisco-based Gap, Inc. .
- A) was found guilty of engaging in unfair labor practices and of using foreign sweatshops
- B) was forced to apologize for artificially raising the price of it blue jeans
- C) answered its critics by requiring fair labor practices among its overseas vendors
- D) created phony shell corporations to cover its use of foreign sweatshops
- E) B and D
Challenge Examination
10) Gap Incorporated’s Social Responsibility Report .
- A) was an effort to live up to the company’s previously established corporate code of conduct
- B) uncovered thousands of fair labor violations by its overseas suppliers
- C) detailed the company’s efforts to monitor the labor practices of its foreign vendors
- D) All of the above.
- E) None of the above.
11) When public relations practitioners seek to maintain or improve relations with local special interest groups, they are engaged in .
- A) investor relations
- B) community relations C) employee relations D) media relations
- E) consumer relations
12) When public relations practitioners communicate on behalf of churches, foundations, or hospitals, they are most likely employed in which category of public relations jobs?
- A) independent public relations consultancies
- B) corporations
- C) governments
- D) nonprofit organizations and trade associations
- E) public relations agencies
13) In which broad category of public relations jobs are practitioners least likely to have the term public relations included in their job titles?
- A) governments
- B) public relations agencies
- C) corporations
- D) independent public relations consultancies
- E) nonprofit organizations and trade associations
Challenge Examination
14) The United States Code has its greatest impact upon public relations practitioners in .
- A) corporations
- B) public relations agencies
- C) nonprofit organizations and trade associations
- D) independent public relations consultancies
- E) governments
15) When trying to get that first job or internship, you should
.
- A) send form letters to as many potential employers as possible
- B) try to say as little as possible about your experience
- C) ask where your desk will be located
- D) ask about salary and benefits in your application letter
- E) thoroughly research a potential employer before applying
16) According to Professor David Dozier, persons who make policy decisions and take responsibility for the success or failure of public relations programs are known as public relations
.
- A) technicians
- B) managers
- C) specialists
- D) professionals
- E) practitioners
17) Which of the following statements is true?
- A) Corporate communicators earn the lowest salaries in public relations.
- B) On average, public relations technicians earn more money than public relations managers.
- C) On average, women practitioners earn more than men practitioners.
- D) All of the above.
- E) None of the above.
Challenge Examination
18) Fineman Associates Public Relations of San Francisco has become well known for .
- A) presenting the Fineman Cup for Public Relations
Excellence
- B) becoming the world’s largest public relations agency
- C) compiling a list of the year’s worst public relations disasters
- D) winning the most public relations awards in history
- E) paying the highest salaries among public relations agencies
19) When trying to getting that first internship or job, you should
- A) send a brief, typed thank-you letter after each interview
- B) send an error-free application letter and resume
- C) prepare for the job interview
- D) all of the above
- E) none of the above
20) The most important event in the development of modern U.S. public relations is .
- A) the Industrial Revolution
- B) the Boston Tea Party
- C) Crystallizing Public Opinion
- D) the ratification of the Constitution and the Bill of Rights
- E) the growth of public education
21) The Scopes Monkey Trial .
- A) was a publicity stunt
- B) focused on Darwin’s theory of evolution
- C) was a historic clash between science and religion
- D) All of the above.
- E) None of the above.
22) The so-called “Four Minute Men” .
- A) are former track and field stars who now serve as PR
spokespersons
- B) were affiliated with the Creel Committee
- C) delivered patriotic messages during the First World War
- D) A and B E) B and C
Challenge Examination
23) Which of the following is not mentioned as one of the five social trends that led to the development of modern public relations?
- A) the expansion of democracy
- B) the growth of institutions
- C) the growth of advocacy
- D) the aging of the Baby Boom generation
- E) the search for consensus
24) The First Amendment is important to public relations because it .
- A) guarantees the right to vote
- B) created the concept of disclosure laws
- C) included the “Declaration of Principles” D) established the right to free expression
- E) limits the amount of federal money that can be used to pay a publicity expert
25) Early publicity shops met with limited success because
.
- A) few understood what publicity was
- B) they met stiff resistance from newspaper publishers
- C) credibility was a problem
- D) All of the above
- E) None of the above
26) Edward L. Bernays’ critics claimed that he .
- A) was too self-promotional B) was a Nazi sympathizer C) was dishonest
- D) was sexist
- E) didn’t understand the plight of poor people
27) Doris Fleischman was the wife and influential business partner of .
- A) Edward L. Bernays B) Ivy Ledbetter Lee C) George Creel
- D) George Parker
- E) P.T. Barnum
Challenge Examination
28) This was the first nationwide grassroots fund raising campaign on behalf of medical research.
- A) The Danny Thomas – St. Jude’s Children’s Hospital
Foundation
- B) The Susan G. Komen Race for the Cure
- C) The March of Dimes
- D) The Great American Smoke-Out
- E) The Jerry Lewis Muscular Dystrophy Association Labor Day
Telethon
29) When you communicate with one public in an attempt to reach another public, the public with whom you are communicating
is known as .
- A) an intervening public
- B) a secondary public
- C) a primary public D) an aware public E) a latent public
30) A group whose values have come into contact with the values of your organization, but which has not realized it is known as
.
- A) a secondary public
- B) a primary public C) an aware public D) a latent public
- E) an intervening public
31) A group that can directly influence your organization’s abilities to achieve its goals is known as .
- A) a secondary public
- B) a primary public
- C) a latent public
- D) an intervening public
- E) an aware public
Challenge Examination
32) The notion that organizations rely on resources that are held by other groups is called .
- A) external resource theory
- B) resource dependency theory
- C) coorientation
- D) codependency theory
- E) external reliance theory
33) As a general rule, the news media in the United States
.
- A) are a secondary, nontraditional, and latent public
- B) must publish or broadcast all news releases that are given to them
- C) have done a good job of incorporating women and minorities into management
- D) do not reflect the cultural diversity of their communities
- E) require government licenses to cover the news
34) Which of the following statements is/are true?
- A) The number of federal government employees is rising.
- B) Less than half of federal government employees a satisfied with information they get from management.
- C) A majority of federal government employees say they are satisfied with their jobs.
- D) All of the above are true. E) All of the above are false.
35) is/are the most powerful force(s) in the U.S. economy.
- A) Business expenditures B) Industrial expenditures C) Foreign investments
- D) Consumer spending
- E) Government spending
36) When the Subway restaurant chain received complaints about a promotion in its German franchises highly critical of McDonald’s and American consumers, company officials
.
CE.8
- A) resigned
- B) asked for a federal government investigation
- C) defended the promotion
- D) continued the promotion
- E) disavowed knowledge of the promotion
Challenge Examination
37) The Whirlpool Corporation’s decision to supply household appliances to every home built by Habitat for Humanity is an example of .
- A) a company acting on its values
- B) a great way to dispose of out-of-date inventory
- C) corporate social responsibility
- D) A and C E) B and C
38) The theory that some needs are more basic than others and, therefore, provide us with greater motivation than others is
.
- A) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs B) Uses and Gratifications Theory C) Einstein’s Theory of Relativity D) The Agenda Setting Hypothesis E) Marsh’s Theory of Compliance
39) According to Abraham Maslow, is/are the most basic order(s) of needs people have.
- A) safety needs B) acceptance C) self-esteem
- D) self-actualization
- E) physiological needs
40) The purpose of Monroe’s Motivated Sequence is to .
- A) study the evolution of public opinion
- B) anticipate future trends
- C) measure public opinion
- D) build persuasive messages
- E) counteract Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
41) is what happens when a public debate leads to a consensus.
- A) An already present mass sentiment
- B) An issue
- C) A social value D) Public opinion E) A social action
Challenge Examination
42) When public relations practitioners attempt to manipulate public opinion, they run the risk of losing their .
- A) respect
- B) credibility
- C) license
- D) innocence
- E) accreditation
43) Communicating an idea in such a way that an audience is influenced, either intentionally or unintentionally, by the way it is expressed is known as .
- A) coloring B) shading C) framing D) spinning
- E) manipulation
44) The main reason President Harry Truman did not realize that the Japanese government was interested in negotiating a peace settlement just before the atomic bomb was dropped on Hiroshima is because .
- A) the Japanese did not respond to the Potsdam Declaration
- B) it was the weekend
- C) the Japanese sent him a message he couldn’t understand
- D) government bureaucrats in Washington misplaced the message
- E) the Japanese Prime Minister was opposed to peace
45)The PRSA Member Code of Ethics is example of
ethics code.
- A) an organizational
- B) a professional
- C) a societal D) a personal E) a voluntary
46) According to the authors of your textbook, the notion that public relations practitioners must choose between objectivity and advocacy is .
- A) a misleading ethics debate based upon a false premise
- B) called the Potter Box
- C) a necessary evil
- D) rejected by all practitioners
- E) an example of the veil of ignorance
Challenge Examination
47) Virtual organizations are a challenge to ethical behavior because .
- A) they don’t really exist
- B) participants may have differing values
- C) they are multinational
- D) they are illegal
- E) none of the above
48) The public relations practitioner’s role as a relationship manager .
- A) resolves the misleading question of whether one should serve as an advocate or as an objective observer
- B) can involve the delivery of unpopular truths
- C) can mean that sometimes it is necessary to be an advocate
- D) All of the above.
- E) None of the above.
49) Immanuel Kant’s categorical imperative requires one to make ethical decisions as if .
- A) it were a life or death situation
- B) we have reach the “Golden Mean of Enlightenment”
- C) there is a veil of ignorance descending upon the world
- D) they would be applied as rules you want everyone else to follow
- E) it’s the end of the world as we know it
50) Ethical considerations play an especially important role in
step of the public relations process.
- A) the research B) the evaluation C) the planning D) every
- E) the communication
51) Research that focuses on an organization’s reputation and products is .
- A) evaluation research
- B) client research
- C) problem-opportunity research
- D) stakeholder research
- E) quantitative research
Challenge Examination
52) Which of the following has/have been identified as among the key components for evaluating relationships?
- A) trust
- B) communal relationship
- C) Q rating
- D) A and B
- E) all of the above
RUBRIC
QUALITY OF RESPONSE |
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POOR / UNSATISFACTORY |
SATISFACTORY |
GOOD |
EXCELLENT |
Content (worth a maximum of 50% of the total points) |
Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. |
20 points out of 50: The essay illustrates poor understanding of the relevant material by failing to address or incorrectly addressing the relevant content; failing to identify or inaccurately explaining/defining key concepts/ideas; ignoring or incorrectly explaining key points/claims and the reasoning behind them; and/or incorrectly or inappropriately using terminology; and elements of the response are lacking. |
30 points out of 50: The essay illustrates a rudimentary understanding of the relevant material by mentioning but not full explaining the relevant content; identifying some of the key concepts/ideas though failing to fully or accurately explain many of them; using terminology, though sometimes inaccurately or inappropriately; and/or incorporating some key claims/points but failing to explain the reasoning behind them or doing so inaccurately. Elements of the required response may also be lacking. |
40 points out of 50: The essay illustrates solid understanding of the relevant material by correctly addressing most of the relevant content; identifying and explaining most of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology; explaining the reasoning behind most of the key points/claims; and/or where necessary or useful, substantiating some points with accurate examples. The answer is complete. |
50 points: The essay illustrates exemplary understanding of the relevant material by thoroughly and correctly addressing the relevant content; identifying and explaining all of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology explaining the reasoning behind key points/claims and substantiating, as necessary/useful, points with several accurate and illuminating examples. No aspects of the required answer are missing. |
Use of Sources (worth a maximum of 20% of the total points). |
Zero points: Student failed to include citations and/or references. Or the student failed to submit a final paper. |
5 out 20 points: Sources are seldom cited to support statements and/or format of citations are not recognizable as APA 6th Edition format. There are major errors in the formation of the references and citations. And/or there is a major reliance on highly questionable. The Student fails to provide an adequate synthesis of research collected for the paper. |
10 out 20 points: References to scholarly sources are occasionally given; many statements seem unsubstantiated. Frequent errors in APA 6th Edition format, leaving the reader confused about the source of the information. There are significant errors of the formation in the references and citations. And/or there is a significant use of highly questionable sources. |
15 out 20 points: Credible Scholarly sources are used effectively support claims and are, for the most part, clear and fairly represented. APA 6th Edition is used with only a few minor errors. There are minor errors in reference and/or citations. And/or there is some use of questionable sources. |
20 points: Credible scholarly sources are used to give compelling evidence to support claims and are clearly and fairly represented. APA 6th Edition format is used accurately and consistently. The student uses above the maximum required references in the development of the assignment. |
Grammar (worth maximum of 20% of total points) |
Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. |
5 points out of 20: The paper does not communicate ideas/points clearly due to inappropriate use of terminology and vague language; thoughts and sentences are disjointed or incomprehensible; organization lacking; and/or numerous grammatical, spelling/punctuation errors |
10 points out 20: The paper is often unclear and difficult to follow due to some inappropriate terminology and/or vague language; ideas may be fragmented, wandering and/or repetitive; poor organization; and/or some grammatical, spelling, punctuation errors |
15 points out of 20: The paper is mostly clear as a result of appropriate use of terminology and minimal vagueness; no tangents and no repetition; fairly good organization; almost perfect grammar, spelling, punctuation, and word usage. |
20 points: The paper is clear, concise, and a pleasure to read as a result of appropriate and precise use of terminology; total coherence of thoughts and presentation and logical organization; and the essay is error free. |
Structure of the Paper (worth 10% of total points) |
Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. |
3 points out of 10: Student needs to develop better formatting skills. The paper omits significant structural elements required for and APA 6th edition paper. Formatting of the paper has major flaws. The paper does not conform to APA 6th edition requirements whatsoever. |
5 points out of 10: Appearance of final paper demonstrates the student’s limited ability to format the paper. There are significant errors in formatting and/or the total omission of major components of an APA 6th edition paper. They can include the omission of the cover page, abstract, and page numbers. Additionally the page has major formatting issues with spacing or paragraph formation. Font size might not conform to size requirements. The student also significantly writes too large or too short of and paper |
7 points out of 10: Research paper presents an above-average use of formatting skills. The paper has slight errors within the paper. This can include small errors or omissions with the cover page, abstract, page number, and headers. There could be also slight formatting issues with the document spacing or the font Additionally the paper might slightly exceed or undershoot the specific number of required written pages for the assignment. |
10 points: Student provides a high-caliber, formatted paper. This includes an APA 6th edition cover page, abstract, page number, headers and is double spaced in 12’ Times Roman Font. Additionally, the paper conforms to the specific number of required written pages and neither goes over or under the specified length of the paper. |
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