LEG 500 Final Exam on Federal Election Commission
Order ID |
53563633773 |
Type |
Essay |
Writer Level |
Masters |
Style |
APA |
Sources/References |
4 |
Perfect Number of Pages to Order |
5-10 Pages |
Description/Paper Instructions
LEG 500 Final Exam on Federal Election Commission
Question 1
Which of the following statements best illustrates the view of “utilitarianism”?
I. From each according to his abilities, to each according to his needs.
II. The risk reasonably to be perceived defines the duty to be obeyed and risks imports relation; it is risk to another or to others within the range of apprehension.
III. An action is right when maximizing welfare and total well-being.
IV. Individuals should pursue his or her own self-interest, even at the expense of others.
Question 2
The best example of a source for virtue ethics for a business is
Question 3
According to Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission, which of the following is not a reason to allow corporations the right to spend money and advertise for political candidates?
Question 4
Which of the following views on outsourcing would be consistent with the free market ethics approach advocated by Milton Friedman?
Question 5
Corporate director or officer decisions to dedicate corporate funds for social causes is called:
Question 6
Under the legal doctrine of “employment at will” an employee can be lawfully terminated from her job for:
I. wearing a shirt that clashes with her suit
II. any non-discriminatory reason
III. complaining about illegal activity in the workplace
IV. only for good cause
Question 7
In the essay, Work Matters, by law professor Marion Crain, all of the following are the result of working except:
Question 8
Exceptions to the rule of employment-at-will include which of the following?
I. organization of unions
II. passage of Sarbanes Oxley Act
III. raising of public policy issues
IV. promise of implied-contract or covenant-of-good-faith
Question 9
The Constitution does not always protect free-speech rights for what public employees say on the job. Which of the following is true?
Question 10
To determine whether a public employee receives First Amendment protection from speech (and therefore cannot be fired for it), the Supreme Court has stated that all of the following are important except:
Question 11
As Facebook and other social media sites grow in users and popularity
Question 12
One reason employer use to justify giving honesty or integrity tests is:
Question 13
The Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 (ECPA):
Question 14
In considering the legality of employer interception of employee e-mails at work, pick the correct statement.
I. Employees have complete expectation of privacy since they can select their password for in-house and remote access of e-mails.
II. A subpoena is required by the employer to read any e-mail that is clearly marked “confidential” by the employee.
III. No expectation of privacy exists over an employer-owned computer system at work.
IV. Statement by the employer that e-mails are confidential and privileged cannot be later used by an employer to defeat an employee’s claim of privacy
Question 15
A majority of states have enacted “lifestyle rights laws” that protect workers’ off-duty activities including cases of smoking, cohabitation, drinking. and single parenthood. What is the least effective argument by an employer to regulate off-the-clock activities in a state that has not enacted such lifestyle rights legislation?
Question 16
Equal protection is the constitutional guarantee:
Question 17
John Smith was assaulted on the loading dock by a coworker, Jim Jones, at the Acme Widget Company. The attack was unprovoked by Smith. After the physical assault, there was an angry verbal exchange between the parties. The incident ended when Jones yelled that Smith was a “sissy” and “everybody knows you’re queer as a three dollar bill.” Which of the following statements best describes the outcome of the harassment lawsuit filed by Smith under The Civil Right Act of 1964?
- Sex discrimination is prohibited by federal law (The Civil Right Act of 1964).
II. Sexual orientation discrimination is prohibited by federal law (The Civil Right Act of 1964).
III. Suits based on harassment due to sexual orientation cannot prevail when based on local or state laws.
IV. Sexual orientation discrimination is not prohibited by federal law (Title VII).
Question 18
All of the following are true statements regarding the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA, 29 U.S.C. §§ 2601, et seq.), EXCEPT which of the following?
Question 19
To establish a prima facie case of religious discrimination, the employee has to show all of the following except which one:
Question 20
A mayor serving in a major metropolitan area receives an internal memorandum indicating personnel at many police stations are single-race. At the time of the report, thirty percent of the police force was black or Hispanic. She immediately calls a press conference and orders transfer of police officers to achieve racial balance across the city. The transferred police offers sue on constitutional grounds. Assuming just these facts, what is the strongest argument that might be advanced by the transferred officers based on constitutional grounds?
Question 21
Typically individual stockholders are not held responsible for the actions of a corporation. Exceptions usually relate to comingling of funds, underinsuring, or similar actions by the corporate leadership. This is called:
Question 22
Employers have __________ been held criminally responsible for workplace injuries and deaths to workers.
Question 23
0 out of 4 points
When an employee is injured on the job, that employee may:
I. File a worker’s compensation claim and accept the government-determined value for the injury.
II. File a tort claim in state court to recover damages above the worker’s compensation amount.
III. File a complaint with OSHA to have the employer investigated and charged if violations are present.
Question 24
Which of the following is true about worker’s compensation in America?
Question 25
One example of modern day slavery, as discussed in the interview with Kevin Bales, is:
RUBRIC
QUALITY OF RESPONSE |
NO RESPONSE |
POOR / UNSATISFACTORY |
SATISFACTORY |
GOOD |
EXCELLENT |
Content (worth a maximum of 50% of the total points) |
Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. |
20 points out of 50: The essay illustrates poor understanding of the relevant material by failing to address or incorrectly addressing the relevant content; failing to identify or inaccurately explaining/defining key concepts/ideas; ignoring or incorrectly explaining key points/claims and the reasoning behind them; and/or incorrectly or inappropriately using terminology; and elements of the response are lacking. |
30 points out of 50: The essay illustrates a rudimentary understanding of the relevant material by mentioning but not full explaining the relevant content; identifying some of the key concepts/ideas though failing to fully or accurately explain many of them; using terminology, though sometimes inaccurately or inappropriately; and/or incorporating some key claims/points but failing to explain the reasoning behind them or doing so inaccurately. Elements of the required response may also be lacking. |
40 points out of 50: The essay illustrates solid understanding of the relevant material by correctly addressing most of the relevant content; identifying and explaining most of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology; explaining the reasoning behind most of the key points/claims; and/or where necessary or useful, substantiating some points with accurate examples. The answer is complete. |
50 points: The essay illustrates exemplary understanding of the relevant material by thoroughly and correctly addressing the relevant content; identifying and explaining all of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology explaining the reasoning behind key points/claims and substantiating, as necessary/useful, points with several accurate and illuminating examples. No aspects of the required answer are missing. |
Use of Sources (worth a maximum of 20% of the total points). |
Zero points: Student failed to include citations and/or references. Or the student failed to submit a final paper. |
5 out 20 points: Sources are seldom cited to support statements and/or format of citations are not recognizable as APA 6th Edition format. There are major errors in the formation of the references and citations. And/or there is a major reliance on highly questionable. The Student fails to provide an adequate synthesis of research collected for the paper. |
10 out 20 points: References to scholarly sources are occasionally given; many statements seem unsubstantiated. Frequent errors in APA 6th Edition format, leaving the reader confused about the source of the information. There are significant errors of the formation in the references and citations. And/or there is a significant use of highly questionable sources. |
15 out 20 points: Credible Scholarly sources are used effectively support claims and are, for the most part, clear and fairly represented. APA 6th Edition is used with only a few minor errors. There are minor errors in reference and/or citations. And/or there is some use of questionable sources. |
20 points: Credible scholarly sources are used to give compelling evidence to support claims and are clearly and fairly represented. APA 6th Edition format is used accurately and consistently. The student uses above the maximum required references in the development of the assignment. |
Grammar (worth maximum of 20% of total points) |
Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. |
5 points out of 20: The paper does not communicate ideas/points clearly due to inappropriate use of terminology and vague language; thoughts and sentences are disjointed or incomprehensible; organization lacking; and/or numerous grammatical, spelling/punctuation errors |
10 points out 20: The paper is often unclear and difficult to follow due to some inappropriate terminology and/or vague language; ideas may be fragmented, wandering and/or repetitive; poor organization; and/or some grammatical, spelling, punctuation errors |
15 points out of 20: The paper is mostly clear as a result of appropriate use of terminology and minimal vagueness; no tangents and no repetition; fairly good organization; almost perfect grammar, spelling, punctuation, and word usage. |
20 points: The paper is clear, concise, and a pleasure to read as a result of appropriate and precise use of terminology; total coherence of thoughts and presentation and logical organization; and the essay is error free. |
Structure of the Paper (worth 10% of total points) |
Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. |
3 points out of 10: Student needs to develop better formatting skills. The paper omits significant structural elements required for and APA 6th edition paper. Formatting of the paper has major flaws. The paper does not conform to APA 6th edition requirements whatsoever. |
5 points out of 10: Appearance of final paper demonstrates the student’s limited ability to format the paper. There are significant errors in formatting and/or the total omission of major components of an APA 6th edition paper. They can include the omission of the cover page, abstract, and page numbers. Additionally the page has major formatting issues with spacing or paragraph formation. Font size might not conform to size requirements. The student also significantly writes too large or too short of and paper |
7 points out of 10: Research paper presents an above-average use of formatting skills. The paper has slight errors within the paper. This can include small errors or omissions with the cover page, abstract, page number, and headers. There could be also slight formatting issues with the document spacing or the font Additionally the paper might slightly exceed or undershoot the specific number of required written pages for the assignment. |
10 points: Student provides a high-caliber, formatted paper. This includes an APA 6th edition cover page, abstract, page number, headers and is double spaced in 12’ Times Roman Font. Additionally, the paper conforms to the specific number of required written pages and neither goes over or under the specified length of the paper. |
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